Hello guys,
I have question... lets say that there is a value on -4.5 hc 2.10 odd, so am taking it, but after 5-10 minutes, lets say now there is value on +4.5 hc 2.15odd.. so am i taking those both? or only the first one?
Thank you.
Value betting on both ways
- arbusers
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Re: Value betting on both ways
In this exact case, I would take both proportionally.GStyle wrote: Hello guys,
I have question... lets say that there is a value on -4.5 hc 2.10 odd, so am taking it, but after 5-10 minutes, lets say now there is value on +4.5 hc 2.15odd.. so am i taking those both? or only the first one?
Thank you.
- CharlieSheen99
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Re: Value betting on both ways
You have to see like two different bets. This happens to me lots of times. I always catch both bets. Even if after 5-10 minutes, the AH+4.5 is at 1.5 odds and has value.GStyle wrote: Hello guys,
I have question... lets say that there is a value on -4.5 hc 2.10 odd, so am taking it, but after 5-10 minutes, lets say now there is value on +4.5 hc 2.15odd.. so am i taking those both? or only the first one?
Thank you.
- GreenScalper
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Re: Value betting on both ways
If there's value you bet it, simple as that. Place both bets from the example.
- CharlieSheen99
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Re: Value betting on both ways
Imagine an odd 2.10 that pinnacle marks as 1.60. Do you bet on it?
Now, imagine an odd at 2.15, with pinnacle at 1.70. Do you bet on it?
If you bet the first, why not the second?
Now, imagine an odd at 2.15, with pinnacle at 1.70. Do you bet on it?
If you bet the first, why not the second?
- GStyle
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Re: Value betting on both ways
Thank you for your answers!
Question 1: Am using 1% of the bank that i have started with, am taking odds 2.00+ only, and am using only the 1% of the started bank, is that problem? for example if my bank is 100 and i won 105, am still betting 1euro.
Question 2: How much values can i take on a game? for example if there is 3 values on different times, and the three are -1.5 -2.5 -3.5 i must take them all?
Thank you!
Question 1: Am using 1% of the bank that i have started with, am taking odds 2.00+ only, and am using only the 1% of the started bank, is that problem? for example if my bank is 100 and i won 105, am still betting 1euro.
Question 2: How much values can i take on a game? for example if there is 3 values on different times, and the three are -1.5 -2.5 -3.5 i must take them all?
Thank you!
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Re: Value betting on both ways
This one is different situation as those 3 bets are dependent of each other. You could end up losing 3× your max stake because one event occurred.GStyle wrote: Question 2: How much values can i take on a game? for example if there is 3 values on different times, and the three are -1.5 -2.5 -3.5 i must take them all?
Thank you!
- CharlieSheen99
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Question1: you have to do your own risk management. I won't recommend you anything in this aspect.
Re: Value betting on both ways
Question2: No. Those bets have correlation, so you have to look at this bet like just one bet. So you can bet on just one handicap, or divide your bet in three different bets. One for each handicap.GStyle wrote: Thank you for your answers!
Question 1: Am using 1% of the bank that i have started with, am taking odds 2.00+ only, and am using only the 1% of the started bank, is that problem? for example if my bank is 100 and i won 105, am still betting 1euro.
Question 2: How much values can i take on a game? for example if there is 3 values on different times, and the three are -1.5 -2.5 -3.5 i must take them all?
Thank you!
Question1: you have to do your own risk management. I won't recommend you anything in this aspect.
- GStyle
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Re: Value betting on both ways
Thank you guys for your fast answers!
how about this situation : value on OU and after some minutes, there is value on HC at the same game. Am taking both?
how about this situation : value on OU and after some minutes, there is value on HC at the same game. Am taking both?
- blizard
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To be precise i simulated with a very simple loop program , a bettor that has 100 euros starting bank and do 1% betting for 18.000 bets ... all in odds of 2.04 with 50% chances of winning in each one.
(this is a guaranteed 2% value - no mistakes , playing with 1 euro per bet at start and adjusting upwards if bank gets bigger but never decrease bet amount , with maximum and final 20 euros bet when bank reaches 2000 )
so , for 1000 players i simulated ... 211 of "them" lost all 100 euros and stoped ...
(28 lost in first 3600 bets , 63 in next , 48 , 47 , and 25 in last bunch of 18000 bets total.)
Average profit was 3048 euros ... 5 won more than 10000 (13500 max) ,another 131 more than 6000 , another 341 more than 3000 , 273 more than 1000, and 32 more than zero.
ps ... the winnings are many times bigger than betting 0.5 percent (this is safe) and the risk much more reasonabe than 2% , all these in theory tho.
Re: Value betting on both ways
1% is dangerous in theory ... its like 20% risk of loosing your bank if play small value betsGStyle wrote:
Question 1: Am using 1% of the bank that i have started with, am taking odds 2.00+ only, and am using only the 1% of the started bank, is that problem? for example if my bank is 100 and i won 105, am still betting 1euro.
To be precise i simulated with a very simple loop program , a bettor that has 100 euros starting bank and do 1% betting for 18.000 bets ... all in odds of 2.04 with 50% chances of winning in each one.
(this is a guaranteed 2% value - no mistakes , playing with 1 euro per bet at start and adjusting upwards if bank gets bigger but never decrease bet amount , with maximum and final 20 euros bet when bank reaches 2000 )
so , for 1000 players i simulated ... 211 of "them" lost all 100 euros and stoped ...
(28 lost in first 3600 bets , 63 in next , 48 , 47 , and 25 in last bunch of 18000 bets total.)
Average profit was 3048 euros ... 5 won more than 10000 (13500 max) ,another 131 more than 6000 , another 341 more than 3000 , 273 more than 1000, and 32 more than zero.
ps ... the winnings are many times bigger than betting 0.5 percent (this is safe) and the risk much more reasonabe than 2% , all these in theory tho.
Last edited by blizard on Fri Jun 18, 2021 11:42 am, edited 1 time in total.
- CharlieSheen99
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Re: Value betting on both ways
Are you sure about this maths?blizard wrote:1% is dangerous in theory ... its like 20% risk of loosing your bank if play small value betsGStyle wrote:
Question 1: Am using 1% of the bank that i have started with, am taking odds 2.00+ only, and am using only the 1% of the started bank, is that problem? for example if my bank is 100 and i won 105, am still betting 1euro.
To be precise i simulated with a very simple loop program , a bettor that has 100 euros starting bank and do 1% betting for 18.000 bets ... all in odds of 2.04 with 50% chances of winning in each one.
(this is a guaranteed 2% value - no mistakes , playing with 1 euro per bet at start and adjusting upwards if bank gets bigger but never decrease bet amount , with maximum and final 20 euros bet when bank reaches 2000 )
so , for 1000 players i simulated ... 211 of "them" lost all 100 euros and stoped ...
(28 lost in first 3600 bets , 63 in next , 48 , 47 , and 25 in last bunch of 18000 bets total.)
Average profit was 3048 euros ... 5 won more than 10000 (13500 max) ,another 131 more than 6000 , another 341 more than 3000 , 273 more than 1000, and 32 more than zero.
ps ... the winnings are many times bigger than betting 0.5 percent (this is safe) and the risk much more reasonabe than 2% , all these in theory tho.
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Re: Value betting on both ways
its prety simple logic to make mistake , and checked while building it ... but cant be 100% with this things,
The problem in my test scenario is that is very agresive after any winning streak to immedietly high the bet to reach 1% ... but on any loosing streak does not lower the bet , meaning practicaly you play with more that 1% many times and never with less.
Still i think is realistic ,,, after winnings we bet more or spend some money , and then never lower the bet amount in 1% again according to our bank
Here is the source on apple script (in mac you just run it from script editor) and the language is very basic to understand , athought im beginer and messy ... but anyone knows a bit can probably check it easy .
The problem in my test scenario is that is very agresive after any winning streak to immedietly high the bet to reach 1% ... but on any loosing streak does not lower the bet , meaning practicaly you play with more that 1% many times and never with less.
Still i think is realistic ,,, after winnings we bet more or spend some money , and then never lower the bet amount in 1% again according to our bank
Here is the source on apple script (in mac you just run it from script editor) and the language is very basic to understand , athought im beginer and messy ... but anyone knows a bit can probably check it easy .
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Last edited by blizard on Fri Jun 18, 2021 4:34 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Here this 2% in 10.000 bets has a 0% chances of losing all our bankroll . Can anybody explained me why this 4% criterium is only less than 2% of having less than 20% with fixed method ?
Re: Value betting on both ways
As i recently read on this famous thread pinnacle.com/en/betting-articles/Betting-Strategy/kelly-criterion-risk-assessment/NJ2JWGV9YHXJP6Gj all this aproachs are not completely true .blizard wrote:1% is dangerous in theory ... its like 20% risk of loosing your bank if play small value betsGStyle wrote:
Question 1: Am using 1% of the bank that i have started with, am taking odds 2.00+ only, and am using only the 1% of the started bank, is that problem? for example if my bank is 100 and i won 105, am still betting 1euro.
To be precise i simulated with a very simple loop program , a bettor that has 100 euros starting bank and do 1% betting for 18.000 bets ... all in odds of 2.04 with 50% chances of winning in each one.
(this is a guaranteed 2% value - no mistakes , playing with 1 euro per bet at start and adjusting upwards if bank gets bigger but never decrease bet amount , with maximum and final 20 euros bet when bank reaches 2000 )
so , for 1000 players i simulated ... 211 of "them" lost all 100 euros and stoped ...
(28 lost in first 3600 bets , 63 in next , 48 , 47 , and 25 in last bunch of 18000 bets total.)
Average profit was 3048 euros ... 5 won more than 10000 (13500 max) ,another 131 more than 6000 , another 341 more than 3000 , 273 more than 1000, and 32 more than zero.
ps ... the winnings are many times bigger than betting 0.5 percent (this is safe) and the risk much more reasonabe than 2% , all these in theory tho.
Here this 2% in 10.000 bets has a 0% chances of losing all our bankroll . Can anybody explained me why this 4% criterium is only less than 2% of having less than 20% with fixed method ?
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Re: Value betting on both ways
Not understood all... but in your link the value seems to be 4% , but in my simple simulation its 2% , big deal .
They calculated 52% of wining with 2.0 odds, so after 100 single dollars bets 52 winners expect to give 104 return
I simulated 50% odds of wining with 2.04 odds, so after 100 single dolar bets , 50 winners will give 102 return.
ps
Also i simulated the "extreme 1% " bank play, that means after any bank profits the 1 dollar bet adjust upwards to always be 1% (ps when bank is 110 . the bet is 1.1) , but after any lose it does not adjust lower ... stays in highest value it reached , this also makes difference practical since any profits you made before the bad streak gives you no advantage you still are in 1% strategy.
They calculated 52% of wining with 2.0 odds, so after 100 single dollars bets 52 winners expect to give 104 return
I simulated 50% odds of wining with 2.04 odds, so after 100 single dolar bets , 50 winners will give 102 return.
ps
Also i simulated the "extreme 1% " bank play, that means after any bank profits the 1 dollar bet adjust upwards to always be 1% (ps when bank is 110 . the bet is 1.1) , but after any lose it does not adjust lower ... stays in highest value it reached , this also makes difference practical since any profits you made before the bad streak gives you no advantage you still are in 1% strategy.
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Re: Value betting on both ways
that scenario is like arbing. -4.5 at 2.10 and +4.5 at 2.15. Did I get it wrong?GStyle wrote: Hello guys,
I have question... lets say that there is a value on -4.5 hc 2.10 odd, so am taking it, but after 5-10 minutes, lets say now there is value on +4.5 hc 2.15odd.. so am i taking those both? or only the first one?
Thank you.