# Pinnacle margin

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 Author Topic: Pinnacle margin  (Read 2248 times)
AlexNotman1
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« on: February 21, 2019, 06:38:44 PM »
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Is Pinnacle margin divided equally on 1 x 2? From what I see it's not but then how to calculate where's more and where's less?
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tomkruiz
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« Reply #1 on: February 21, 2019, 07:04:54 PM »
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Someone also claimed that it's not equally divided, but that doesn't make sense to me. Because that would mean they also gamble, as there is no way to know the outcome in advance. So why would bookies risk their profit by not dividing it equally between outcomes?
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AlexNotman1
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« Reply #2 on: February 21, 2019, 07:07:02 PM »
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From what I read I understand that they put lower margin on lower odds where they got high volume and higher chance to land this outcome. For now I wait for an answer from someone more experienced that I am. Also I read that they can put higher margin on high odds cause much less people are interested of them.
 « Last Edit: February 21, 2019, 07:10:16 PM by AlexNotman1 » Logged
tomkruiz
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« Reply #3 on: February 21, 2019, 07:17:10 PM »
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Should that be the case, there would be no way for us to calculate the correct margin. Because there is no way to know about the volume of placed bets. I am still learning about this though so any information from a professional would be of high value.
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middler
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« Reply #4 on: February 22, 2019, 10:39:16 PM »
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https://www.pinnacle.com/en/betting-articles/Betting-Strategy/explaining-favourite-longshot-bias/VUN2U32R85PPF4YP
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Chipmunk
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« Reply #5 on: February 23, 2019, 11:02:42 AM »
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Should that be the case, there would be no way for us to calculate the correct margin. Because there is no way to know about the volume of placed bets. I am still learning about this though so any information from a professional would be of high value.

You've got a pretty huge sample of past bets, it shouldn't be difficult to derive the formula.

Cut your sample into say 20 bins, calculate the yield, trendline in excel vs the bin midpoints.
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